Proving
Why?
Base on encrypt rule:
->
Put it into the target
The n in left part of equal could all be divided by n. So it’s same as this:
Bacause
->
Put it into above, prove this work
Then divide into two condition
m
and n
has coprime relation
In this condition base on euler theorem
Put it into above:
Proved
m
and n
has no coprime relation
In this condition, bacause m
and n
has no coprime relation, so m
and n
must have common factor that is not 1
.n
come from two coprime factor p
and q
, so m
must multiply with p
or q
.m = kp
or m = kq
Choose m = kp
for example
Because q
is a coprime number, and k
has no possible multiply q
[or will cross m
], so k
and q
has coprime relation.
Base on euler theorem:
Further
Bascause
so:
This time t
definitely could be divided be p
. Why?
$((kp)^{ed-1}-k)$ is an integer and p
q
has coprime relation
So definitely has integer $t’ = t/p$
m=kp
, n=pq
then:
Proved